Tuesday, August 26, 2008

Index::CCNA 1,2,3 and 4 [Ver 3.1]





Cisco CCNA :: A Long Index [Ver 3.1]









Cisco CCNA 01 :: Networking Basics [Ver 3.1]





Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.








Cisco CCNA 02 :: Routing and Routing Basics [Ver 3.1]





Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.







Cisco CCNA 03 :: Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing [Ver 3.1]





Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.







Cisco CCNA 04 :: WAN Technologies [Ver 3.1]





Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.







Cisco CCNA :: Voucher Exam [Ver 3.1]





Select the voucher exam to see questions and answers.






Browse them free with open mind



Index::CCNA 1 [Ver 3.1]

Cisco CCNA 01 :: Networking Basics [Ver 3.1]



Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.

::Cisco CCNA 1[Ver 3.1]::Final[SetB]::

1 Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)
transceiver
* router
* switch
hub
media

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
3
5
6
* 7
8
9

3. Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?

Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
* Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?

* The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?

session
transport
network
data link
* physical


6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?

* three
four
five
six
seven
eight

7. A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

* After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds.
When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit.
* When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
* When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.

8. Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)

switch
* hub
bridge
router
* repeater

9. What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)

* Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
* Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
* Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
Existing network topology must support shared media.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)

the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
* a unique host IP address
the IP address of Switch 1
* the default gateway address
the MAC address of Host C
* the subnet mask for the LAN

11. Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?

11101000
11110100
* 11111000
11111010

12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29?

host address
multicast address
* broadcast address
subnetwork address

13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)

* Layer 1 bit pattern
* Layer 2 frames
Layer 3 packets
Layer 4 segments
Layer 5 -7 data

14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
* 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?

6 networks / 32 hosts
14 networks / 14 hosts
* 30 networks / 6 hosts
62 networks / 2 hosts

16. Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?

255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0

17. A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.31.0.0
172.31.160.0
172.31.192.0
172.31.248.0
* 172.31.192.160
172.31.192.248


18. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
* forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
* creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
* is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination


19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?

FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
* FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.

20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP


21. Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

Ethernet
* DSL
Token Ring
* Frame Relay
FDDI

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?

data, segments, frames, packets, bits
data, packets, segments, frames, bits
* data, segments, packets, frames, bits
data, packets, frames, segments, bits

23. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?

Both cables are acceptable.
* The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
rollover
console
* crossover
straight-through

25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

1 and 2; 4 and 5
* 1 and 2; 3 and 6
3 and 6; 7 and 8
4 and 5; 7 and 8

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
A-crossoverB- straight-throughC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-crossover
* A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
A-fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
A-straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
A-crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through

27. Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?

console
rollover
* crossover
straight-through

28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?

Cable A
* Cable B
Cable C
Cable D

29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)

255.0.0.0
255.254.0.0
255.224.0.0
255.255.0.0
* 255.255.252.0
* 255.255.255.192


30. What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?

* static
dynamic
interior
exterior

31. Which statement describes a star topology?

Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
* Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.

32. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)

link A
* link B
* link C
* link D
link E

33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?

* The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.

34. Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)

192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
* 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
* To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.

35. Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?

transport
* network
data link
physical

36. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?

00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
00-B0-D0-7F-F7-46
00-0F-24-85-75-C0
00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
* 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
00-08-A3-B6-CE-03

37. Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?

hub
* router
bridge
access point
Layer 2 switch

38. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?

network
application
session
* transport

39. A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?

255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
* 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.248

40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?

Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN.
* The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?

router
switch
bridge
* repeater

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable

43. A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?

The switch drops the frame.
The switch sends the frame out port 3.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
* The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.

44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?

the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
* an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
2 points for Option 4

45. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?

Layer 1
Layer 2
* Layer 3
Layer 4

46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?

* a

47. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?

* It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.

48. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)

Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
* Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
* Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65

49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

application
* session
transport
network
data link

::Cisco CCNA 1[Ver 3.1]::Final[SetA]::

[Posted by Alice]
[Special Instructions: All things are given step by step. * mark means the answer(s). If you think some answers are wrong then give your comment or mail to RecentCCNAComment@gmail.com]

1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
Switch router

2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven

3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.

5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater

8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS

15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6

16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C

18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0

19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star

20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch

21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.

23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?

Router

24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.

25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

Session

26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?

100 Mbps

27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.

28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network

29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable

32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3

33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.

34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.

35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network

36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A

link E

38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols

39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover

40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through

43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring

Ethernet

44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess? Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.

45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol

46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160

47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address

48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248

49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer

50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

Index::CCNA 4 [Ver 3.1]

Cisco CCNA 04 :: WAN Technologies [Ver 3.1]



Select any of the Module to view. Every module presents it's questions and answers.

::Cisco CCNA 4[Ver 3.1]::VOUCHER EXAM::

1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available

2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.

3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address

4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units

5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet

6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2

7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area

9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL

10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP

11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.

12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation

13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number

14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute

15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.

16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213

17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge

18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router

19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests

20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.

21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability

22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table

25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations

26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics

27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups

28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way

29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.

30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.

31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.

32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior

33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
PRI
LAPA
*LAPD

34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel

35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP

37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network

38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM

39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP

40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address

41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E

42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.

43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted

45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon

46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK

48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network

49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.

50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.

51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0

52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.

53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128

54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258

55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8

56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN

57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line

58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch

59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001

60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration

::Cisco CCNA 4[Ver 3.1]::Final::

[Posted by Alice]
[Special Instructions: All things are given step by step. * mark means the answer(s). If you think some answers are wrong then give your comment or mail to RecentCCNAComment@gmail.com]

[This is not a full set. If find later it will be published here]

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
DLCI

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends?
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The point is called the demarcation point.


6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show controllers serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration?
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
create a full-mesh topology
use point-to-point subinterfaces


13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed into the router

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established: (0 / 5)
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

15. What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

16. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

17. - call is made (1 / 6)
3,2,1,4

18. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
PPP with CHAP

19. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration?
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

::Cisco CCNA 4[Ver 3.1]::Final::

[Posted by Alice]
[Special Instructions: All things are given step by step. * mark means the answer(s). If you think some answers are wrong then give your comment or mail to RecentCCNAComment@gmail.com]

[This is not a full set. If find later it will be published here]

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
DLCI

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The usernames are misconfigured.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends?
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The point is called the demarcation point.


6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show controllers serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration?
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) (2 / 5)
create a full-mesh topology
use point-to-point subinterfaces


13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed into the router

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established: (0 / 5)
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

15. What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

16. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

17. - call is made (1 / 6)
3,2,1,4

18. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
PPP with CHAP

19. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration?
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

::Cisco CCNA 4[Ver 3.1]::Module 06::

[Posted by Alice]
[Special Instructions: All things are given step by step. * mark means the answer(s). If you think some answers are wrong then give your comment or mail to RecentCCNAComment@gmail.com]

1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems

2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses

3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000

4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol

7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable

8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks

9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll

10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

11


In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest

14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent

16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker
llustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJo